Answer Bank

Frequently Asked Questions


If I understand correctly, there isn’t a gluten allergy because celiac is an autoimmune response, while gluten intolerance is a gastrointestinal response. For someone to have a gluten allergy they would have to be allergic to the proteins of glutenin and gliadin and have an allergic response. Is it even possible to have a true allergy to glutenin and gliadin? Obviously I am not an expert but from my research there isn’t a gluten allergy, it is a misused/inaccurate phrase that is used to describe gluten intolerance and non celiac gluten sensitivity.

When we say “wheat allergy” it is clear that there is an allergic response to the ingestion of wheat; and because it is only protein that causes an allergic reaction, one can assume “wheat allergy” is indeed a reaction to the protein content of wheat, hence either glutenins or gliadins (or both). As for what we call “non celiac-gluten sensitivity, we actually have no evidence that gluten is the real culprit. The term is probably an umbrella term that should be rephrased as “Adverse reaction to ingestion of wheat-containing foods”. July, 2015